Hi all, don't know if this has been addressed here, but from a psychological/profiling stand point, if Jodi was sexually abused and mistreated as she originally claimed... Especially to the degree that led her to murder him with such rage (again, power her claim) , it is almost guaranteed that she would have attacked the "offending part". I.e. his penis. It's very common for victims in especially heinous sexual abuse cases to mutilate the genitals if they retaliate.
Unless I'm mistaken, his genitals were one of the only parts he WASN'T stabbed in . Is that correct?
Just my observation.



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